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Wednesday, November 8, 2017

31 Reasons Why: The Las Vegas Narrative Doesn’t Add Up

November 8, 2017

Premise as presented by Las Vegas Metropolitan Police Department / FBI Las Vegas:  The mass homicide that occurred on October 1, 2017 at the Route 91 Harvest Concert (Mandalay Bay) was committed by a "Lone Wolf" attacker, 64 year old Stephen Paddock.

Author Opinion / Citizen Investigative Opinion: The following are 31 of the most BASIC questions that need to be answered completely, and with full transparency before we, the American public, are to believe the "official narrative" that this horrific attack upon our Nation and specifically the State of Nevada, was perpetrated by a "Lone Wolf" attacker.

Barring a complete accounting of these very basic 31 questions, the narrative that the perpetrator, Stephen Paddock, acted alone to commit the worst mass-casualty gunfire-assault simply can not, and should not, be entertained.

It should be noted that these are only the most elementary questions that should start the investigative process, and is by no means all-inclusive, nor encompass every possible scenario. These questions should also be reviewed in conjunction with the "AAR" done by Lt. Col. Royston Potter (See attached video):
  1. Who determined within hours that Paddock was a “Lone Wolf” without examining ANY electronic devices on his person or his home(s)?
  2. Why was the strike team on floor 31 held back from "neutralizing" the threat on floor 32?
  3. When Zebra-20 made entry into Paddock’s room and fired one round, what was the target?  Why was this fact not initially reported to the public?
  4. The very first rounds fired appear to have come from south side of stage and likely were that of a .308 bolt action rifle. Why are we still using “Lone Wolf?”
  5. Who was the "WMA" (White Male Adult) placed into custody from the RV in the Motel 8 lot?  What were the contents of his bag(s) that were identified as "suspicious"?
  6. Who determined what the movements and actions were of Mandalay Bay Security Officer Jesus Campos and Maintenance Engineer Stephen Schuck as well as the reasons they were on floor 31 or 32?
  7. Who was responsible for guarding residence(s) of Stephen Paddock in Nevada, Texas, California and elsewhere? What evidence “left” his home after it was burglarized?  Why was the residence in Nevada left unsecured?
  8. Who is registered owner of the Black Chevy “Dually” PickUp Truck that fled the area of Mandalay Bay as witnessed by LVMPD? 
  9. At 23:04 LVMPD witnessed a White Ford Heavy Duty PicUp Truck; WMA exited with a rifle.  Who was this and what is the status of this truck/driver?
  10. At 23:16hrs, a LVMPD Officer’s Open-Microphone captures the sounds of automatic gunfire; What was source of this audio?  What was the exact radio that made this transmission and its exact location?
  11. Around same time as #10 question, reports of gunfire was reported at Bellagio (confirmed by Bellagio Security); STATUS?
  12. Why were multiple reports of shooters reported along low rooftops at Mirage, Bellagio, Tropicana? Who cleared all of these areas of any potential suspects and witnesses?
  13. Why the major discrepancy between initial statement regarding Security Officer Jesus Campos “disrupting” shooter, to the current description that he was shot/injured 6 full minutes prior to the attack on the concert region outside Mandalay Bay (Route 91 Harvest)?
  14. What type of round(s) struck the aircraft fuel tank at KLAS airport and from what location? Caliber?
  15. Has all motor vehicle registration data been checked/verified for every vehicle that entered / exited each hotel, starting from at least the date Paddock checked in, through the event, and for at least a week afterwards for any connections to Stephen Paddock?
  16. Why is there a concerted effort to avoid the press by Law Enforcement?  Why are Independent Press outlets banned from press briefings?  Why the obvious “defensive posture by all investigating agencies?”
  17. Has Eric Paddock been cleared as a potential suspect?  If so, when and by whom?  Same for Marilou Danley?  Other siblings and family of alleged shooter Stephen Paddock; have they ALL been cleared as potential suspects or witnesses?  If so, when and by whom?
  18. Exactly which room(s) was Stephen Paddock checked into, and when did he check in those room(s)?
  19. Who was officially checked into room 32-134?  Brian Hodge states he was.  Was he?
  20. Has every guest at Mandalay Bay been accurately & properly vetted for at least 2 weeks prior to 10/1/17?
  21. Initial statements by LVMPD as to why Security Officer Jesus Campos may have been on floor 32 dealt with either "door alarms", "smoke alarms", "locked fire doors", and/or "drilling". What actually prompted Security Officer Campos to be on the 32nd floor of Mandalay Bay, and specifically what did he hear, see, smell?
  22. If Security AND Maintenance took on gunfire on floor 32, prior to mass shooting, why the confusion as to what floor the shooting into the concert venue was coming from?
  23. Between 23:21 - 23:28 several suspicious females observed by LVMPD and were subsequently taken into custody. Who were they? Status?
  24. How many expended brass casings (fired round casings) were retrieved in 32-135 / 32-134? Caliber / round types used? Specific weapons fired? Why is so little information provided surrounding this particular item which should be readily available?
  25. What did LVMPD / FBI determine that the “drilling” was in either 32-135 and/or 32-134? What tool was used?  For what purpose?
  26. Why would a Federal Judge need to order “evidence be preserved” by MGM?  Is MGM attempting to conceal evidence?
  27. Has the FBI done a thorough tracing of all aircraft Paddock allegedly owned / sold or rented? Has this been coordinated with the FAA?
  28. Has any main witness (Hodge, Campos, Schuck) been polygraphed and/or tested for GSR?  If so, results?
  29. When will the toxicology / autopsy reports of Paddock be made public?
  30. Have all of Paddock’s gambling receipts been accounted for?  Will his income / IRS filings be made public?  Will his financial statements, bank account statements, and any documents pertaining to his earnings be made available for forensic inspection by independent CPA's?
  31. Who was the second person in room 32-135 that Paddock ordered dinner with?
(As posted and modified from the twitter account of @ScottAnthonyUSA on 10/23/17 as part of an After Action Report process)

Lt. Col. Royston Potter "AAR" Video on Las Vegas Shooting:

Abel Danger Comments on FAA /  Helicopter anomalies:



Wednesday, November 1, 2017

EXCLUSIVE: AUDIO TRANSCRIPT OF LAS VEGAS AIR CONTROL TOWER TO HELICOPTERS (ACTIVE SHOOTER)

LAS Tower Notes:  ALL TIMES IN UTC (+7HRS PT) for 10/1/2017 (10/2/2017 in UTC)

Shooting started (as reported) at 05:04:00 UTC.  The following is an audio transcription of the KLAS Las Vegas Air Control Tower as it regards to helicopters that were airborne as well as the active shooter situation.  First mention of helicopters starts around 05:13UTC (10:13 PT Local Time):


  1. 05:13:13 -  “Maverick 34 from Tower, proceed as requested.  You guys have any idea what’s going on there across the street?”  
  2. 05:13:20- (UNITELLIGIBLE)
  3. 05:13:22: I just thought you left there. Across the street? Over by the Luxor?”
  4. 05:13:29 - (UNITELLIGIBLE)
  5. 05:13;32 - “OK, thanks.”
  6. 05:13:38- (UNINTELLIGIBLE)
  7. 05:13:40 - “We just see a lot of police cars. Like uh, And more uh, just headed that way.”
  8. 05:14:19- “Maverick 27 Las Vegas Tower, (UNINTELLIGIBLE) both ways.”
  9. 05:14:29 - (UNKNOWN TRANSMITTER) “Hey tower, I think the concert ended thats why the police are there.  It’s getting out. Eh.. 32 Garage 3000.”
  10. 05:14:46- “Did the concert need the police?”
  11. 05:14:48 - (UNKNOWN RESPONSE) “Nah, I think that it was… I’m not sure what kind of concert it was… But I think that it’s uh … I think its just getting out, and they’re blocking up the road, they’re getting people out of there.”
  12. 05:14:55- “OK.. makes sense.”
  13. 05:16:46- “Maverick 16, (UNITNELLIGIBLE) the garage.”
  14. 05:17:22- (12 minutes after shooting starts at Mandalay Bay) “Intel for all helicopters… I have information on an active shooter at Mandalay Bay… uh use caution if you want, to uh, re-route, and head back inbound and then maybe approach from the south… let me know what you want to do…”
  15. 05:17:48- “Maverick 4 radar contact… did you get the uh message about the uh situation?”
  16. 05:17:52-“Roger, yeah we heard what you said… we’ll uh.. fax them about them and see what they want to do… thanks.”
  17. 05:17:58- “OK, I highly suggest, maybe uh routing further west, and then coming in from the south… Im not gonna depart… uh I think what I want to do is just get you guys back on the ground.”
  18. 05:18:10- “OK… yeah, we can uh, uh, let you know, 10-4.”
  19. 05:18:20- “ok 3497, we’re not gonna be departing for a few minutes… uh… uh yeah I will have information for you in a few…”
  20. 05:18:37- “Primary 16 High Roller… 3000”
  21. 05:18:41- “Maverick 16 Roger… continue uh northbound”
  22. 05:18:44- “Alright uh Maverick 32.. and uh this is for all the Mavericks… what I want you to do is do not proceed any further south.. I want you to go west for 3 miles and then south until you are south of the field and approach from the south.”
  23. 05:19:01- “Ok Tower.. Maverick 32 first one we’re heading out to the west right from here.”
  24. 05:19:05- “Maverick 3 follow your Company”
  25. 05:19:06- “Maverick 3 following Company”
  26. 05:19:08- “Maverick 27 follow the Company”
  27. 05:19:09- “Roger 27”
  28. 05:19:12- “Maverick 9 follow the _______ hit”
  29. 05:19:14- “Roger that”
  30. 05:19:17- (Maverick 32) “Take it out uh west of the uh _________ is that what you’re saying?”
  31. 05:19:22- “Uh yeah… gimme another mile from there just to be uh safe.. um… there, there might be more to this,  I’m not sure.”
  32. 05:19:48- “Maverick 21 uh just follow your Company ahead.. we are uh we are re-routing you around a situation there….over the strip…”
  33. 05:19:54- “ah 21” (Maverick 21 acknowledged)
  34. 05:20:00 - “Maverick 4 and twenty…seven… (27)… lemme just confirm thats who’s there… oh make that 16… Maverick 4 and 16…”
  35. 05:20:08- “Primary 4 I’m _______” (Maverick 4)
  36. 05:20:09- “copy also sixteen” (Maverick 16)
  37. 05:20:11- “Thanks guys” (LAS)
  38. 05:20:26- (2Aplha98 ???) “(2A98) there’s uh one _______ between two thousand eight hundred bearing west… whats that about?”
  39. 05:20:32- “2Alpha98 remain outside the bravo… we have a situation over the strip… uh.. still don’t have all the details yet… but remain outside the bravo airspace.”
  40. 05:20:42- “2Alpha98 bravo 118”
  41. 05:21:13- “Tower from Maverick ____ would it be possible ____ to the south to clear to land?”
  42. 05:21:20- “Yeah thats what Im saying… I want to uh… around that situation and come in from the south… if you need to cross the numbers of 25 right… thats approved… we have traffic landing on 25 Left.”
  43. 05:21:33- “Ok the first runs I get to I will be dropping in from the south.”
  44. 05:21:56- “Central 5 Las Vegas Tower”
  45. 05:21:59- “Central 5 I need you over on 119.9… you are cleared to enter the bravo airspace… the helicopters there are maneuvering around the situation there?”
  46. 05:22:13- “Delta Four Eighty Six… you may pick up smoke… the helicopters will be at your one o’clock… they are going to stay to your north… they are landing on the ramp they should be no factor for you…”
  47. 05:22:23- “Copy Delta 486… we got a couple of them in sight now…”
  48. 05:22:49- “ _____________ …. I don’t know if you got it…but they are saying the shooter is possibly on the upper levels on the east side.. for aircraft flying over there..”
  49. 05:23:40- “10-4 3497, as soon as these helicopters are down we are gonna start rolling… should be about four or five minutes…”
  50. 05:23:51- “Maverick 32 were just north over the ________”
  51. 05:23:57- (LAS Tower) “One more time for that?”
  52. 05:23:58- “Maverick 32 we’re just gonna turn back north here _____________”
  53. 05:24:02- “Maverick 32, Roger.”
  54. 05:24:48- “Am I clear to cross the runway here?”
  55. 05:24:49- “Maverick 3 AFFIRMATIVE and remain clear of runway 2-6 Left… traffic landing.”
  56. 05:25:32- “__________ are we clear to go?”
  57. 05:25:34- “Maverick 9 affirmative.”
  58. 05:25:58- “Maverick 9 uh if you follow your Company you will be just fine… what Im concerned about is setting off the uh ground radars up… and that would make me have to ________ send aircraft en route… so whatever you are doing is fine right there.”
  59. 05:26:03- “Maverick 21 just follow your Company. Maverick 4 and 16 same for you guys.”
  60. 05:26:17- “Vegas Tower CareFlight 1… at 10 miles to the south with Delta inbound for Spring Valley Hospital please.”
  61. 05:26:24- “CareFlight 1 that plus 4-2-1-3 … cleared to enter class Bravo airspace… there is a situation over the uh strip… i need you to remain at least 3 miles away from that at all times… proceed direct.”
  62. 05:26:37- “Proceeding direct… will maintaining 3 miles from the strip.. Care Flight 1.”
  63. 05:27:01- “Tower ____ 88”
  64. 05:27:07- “That’s 788?
  65. 05:27:08- “Yeah. we’re gonna… we’re gonna return to ______ they have a medical in the back here..”
  66. 05:27:16- “_____788 make the right turn on Bravo, remain this frequency, and um, I’ll call the ramp…”
  67. 05:28:54- “LAS VEGAS TOWER… MOBILE 7 ___”
  68. 05:27:58- “Mobile 7 go ahead”
  69. 05:27:59- “WE NEED TO ______ SIDE OF _____RIGHT IMMEDIATELY ON THE OUTER SIDE AT THE END OF THE ________ FOR THE ACTIVE SHOOTER AT THE MANDALAY BAY __________”
  70. 05:28:07- “1-9 Right is closed immediately.”
  71. 05:31:15- “18-53 Heavy, make the left on bravo 5 charlie to the ramp… and just be advised there is an active shooter on the airport.. uh… this is a blanket broadcast for all aircraft… uh… just a heads up.. keep your feet up to the ramp….”
  72. 05:31:33- (MOBILE 7) _______________________”
  73. 05:31:35- “Mobile 7… 1-9 and Left… um… approved… cross 1-9 and Left off _______”

The above transcription was performed by Scott Anthony after extensive review.  The following helicopters were identified at least via the audio of the KLAS Tower between the hours of 05:00-05:31UTC on 10/2/2017 (10:00PM - 10:31PM PT on 10/1/2017):

1. Maverick 3
2. Maverick 4
3. Maverick 9
4. Maverick 16
5, Maverick 21
6. Maverick 27
7. Maverick 32
8. Maverick 34

A total of EIGHT Maverick Company "touring" helicopters were airborne during the time of the terrorist attack at the Route 91 Harvest / Mandalay Bay event on 10.1.2017

Disclaimer:  Audio interpretations are subject to error.  The audio source will be uploaded and linked to this report so readers can determine accuracy / make their own opinions.  No opinion is provided by the author of this transcription.  The above merely entails evidence and factual data that must be taken into account when reviewing the events of 10/1/2017.

The following aircraft appeared to have anomalies with either their callsigns or beacon data.  No assertion of wrong-doing is being made here.  This information is public sourced, and is merely being looked at to determine the cause for the missing flight data on 10/1/2017




Saturday, October 28, 2017

Las Vegas: Mandalay Bay / Route 91 Harvest “Multiple Shooter” Witnesses Mysteriously Dying

October 28, 2017

What happens in Las Vegas stays in Las Vegas... at least that’s how the saying goes.  Unfortunately, if you happen to have been part of a mass casualty incident and your account varies from the “official narrative” it appears that the risk of living a long and healthy life drastically diminishes.  The odds of such random deaths is astronomical at best, to even be a victim of a mass shooting the size of the one that happened in Las Vegas on October 1, 2017, or to then expire suddenly after such an event, for various random causes such as another shooting, seizures or a car accident.

Could such random events happen?  Sure they can.  But generally only once in a person’s life unless they engage in very high risk activities regularly or simply ignore health issues.  Happening twice or more, and we have to start questioning the probabilities of such occurrences.

Future deaths of any and all witnesses will be found here... in the archives.  We can only pray for the safety of others that have come forward.

******************************************************************************

October 24, 2017 - Danny Contreras




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October 27th,  2017  -  Dennis & Lorraine Carver







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October 9, 2017 - Kymberley Suchomel

Kymberley was young and had an exciting life ahead of her. Tragically, she passed away unexpectedly on October 9, just a week after the shooting. Her grandmother, Julie Norton, told VV Daily Press that Kymberley may have died in her sleep after her husband, Mike, left for work at 4:30 a.m.






Wednesday, July 26, 2017

Medical Conditions That Disqualify Willing Volunteers From Serving In Military

Abdominal Organs and Gastrointestinal System

The causes for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction are an authenticated history of:
a. Esophagus. Ulceration, varices, fistula, achalasia, or other dismotility disorders; chronic or recurrent esophagitis if confirmed by appropriate x-ray or endoscopic examination.
b. Stomach and duodenum.
(1) Gastritis. Chronic hypertrophic, or severe.
(2) Active ulcer of the stomach or duodenum confirmed by x-ray or endoscopy.
(3) Congenital abnormalities of the stomach or duodenum causing symptoms or requiring surgical treatment, except a history of surgical correction of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis of infancy.
c. Small and large intestine.
(1) Inflammatory bowel disease. Regional enteritis, ulcerative colitis, ulcerative proctitis.
(2) Duodenal diverticula with symptoms or sequelae (hemorrhage, perforation, etc.).
(3) Intestinal malabsorption syndromes, including postsurgical and idiopathic.
(4) Congenital. Condition, to include Meckel's diverticulum or functional abnormalities, persisting or symptomatic within the past 2 years.
d. Gastrointestinal bleeding. History of, unless the cause has been corrected, and is not otherwise disqualifying.
e. Hepato-pancreatic-biliary tract.
(1) Viral hepatitis, or unspecified hepatitis, within the preceding 6 months or persistence of symptoms after 6 months, or objective evidence of impairment of liver function, chronic hepatitis, and hepatitis B carriers. (Individuals who are known to have tested positive for hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection require confirmatory testing. If positive, individuals should be clinically evaluated for objective evidence of liver function impairment. If evaluation reveals no signs or symptoms of disease, the applicant meets the standards.)
(2) Cirrhosis, hepatic cysts and abscess, and sequelae of chronic liver disease.
(3) Cholecystitis, acute or chronic, with or without cholelithiasis, and other disorders of the gallbladder including post-cholecystectomy syndrome, and biliary system.
Note. Cholecystectomy is not disqualifying 60 days postsurgery (or 30 days post-laproscopic surgery), providing there are no disqualifying residuals from treatment.
(4) Pancreatitis. Acute and chronic.
f. Anorectal.
(1) Anal fissure if persistent, or anal fistula.
(2) Anal or rectal polyp, prolapse, stricture, or incontinence.
(3) Hemorrhoids, internal or external, when large, symptomatic, or history of bleeding.
g. Spleen.
(1) Splenomegaly, if persistent.
(2) Splenectomy, except when accomplished for trauma, or conditions unrelated to the spleen, or for hereditary spherocytosis.
h. Abdominal wall.
(1) Hernia, including inguinal, and other abdominal, except for small, asymptomatic umbilical or asymptomatic hiatal.
(2) History of abdominal surgery within the preceding 60 days, except that individuals post-laparoscopic cholecystectomy may be qualified after 30 days.
i. Other.
(1) Gastrointestinal bypass or stomach stapling for control of obesity.
(2) Persons with artificial openings.

Blood and blood-forming tissue diseases

The causes for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction are an authenticated history of:
a. Anemia. Any hereditary acquired, aplastic, or unspecified anemia that has not permanently corrected with therapy.
b. Hemorrhagic disorders. Any congenital or acquired tendency to bleed due to a platelet or coagulation disorder.
c. Leukopenia. Chronic or recurrent, based upon available norms for ethnic background.
d. Immunodeficiency.

Dental

The causes for rejection are for appointment, enlistment, and induction are:
a. Diseases of the jaw or associated tissues which are not easily remediable, and will incapacitate the individual or otherwise prevent the satisfactory performance of duty. This includes temporomandibular disorders and/or myofascial pain dysfunction that is not easily corrected or has the potential for significant future problems with pain and function.
b. Severe malocclusion that interferes with normal mastication or requires early and protracted treatment; or relationship between mandible and maxilla that prevents satisfactory future prosthodontic replacement.
c. Insufficient natural healthy teeth or lack of a serviceable prosthesis, preventing adequate mastication and incision of a normal diet. This includes complex (multiple fixture) dental implant systems that have associated complications that severely limit assignments and adversely affect performance of world-wide duty. Dental implants systems must be successfully osseointegrated and completed.
d. Orthodontic appliances for continued treatment (attached or removable). Retainer appliances are permissible, provided all active orthodontic treatment has been satisfactorily completed.

Ears

The causes for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction are:
a. External ear. Atresia or severe microtia, acquired stenosis, severe chronic or acute otitis externa, or severe traumatic deformity.
b. Mastoids. Mastoiditis, residual of mastoid operation with fistula, or marked external deformity that prevents or interferes with wearing a protective mask or helmet.
c. Meniere's Syndrome. Or other diseases of the vestibular system.
d. Middle and inner ear. Acute or chronic otitis media, cholesteatoma, or history of any inner or middle ear surgery excluding myringotomy or successful tympanoplasty.
e. Tympanic membrane. Any perforation of the tympanic membrane, or surgery to correct perforation within 120 days of examination.

Hearing

The cause for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction is a hearing threshold level greater than that described in paragraph c below.
a. Audiometers, calibrated to standards of the International Standards Organization (ISO 1964) or the American National Standards Institute (ANSI 1996), will be used to test the hearing of all applicants.
b. All audiometric tracings or audiometric readings recorded on reports of medical examination or other medical records will be clearly identified.
c. Acceptable audiometric hearing levels (both ears) are:
(1) Pure tone at 500, 1000, and 2000 cycles per second of not more than 30 decibels (dB) on the average (each ear), with no individual level greater than 35dB at these frequencies.
(2) Pure tone level not more than 45 dB at 3000 cycles per second each ear, and 55 dB at 4000 cycles per second each ear.

Endocrine and Metabolic Disorders

The causes for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction are an authenticated history of:
a. Adrenal dysfunction of any degree.
b. Diabetes mellitus of any type.
c. Glycosuria. Persistent, when associated with impaired glucose tolerance or renal tubular defects.
d. Acromegaly. Gigantism or other disorder of pituitary function.
e. Gout.
f. Hyperinsulinism.
g. Hyperparathyroidism and hypoparathyroidism.
h. Thyroid disorders.
(1) Goiter, persistent or untreated.
(2) Hypothyroidism, uncontrolled by medication.
(3) Cretinism.
(4) Hyperthyroidism.
(5) Thyroiditis.
i. Nutritional deficiency diseases. Such diseases include beriberi, pellagra, and scurvy.
j. Other endocrine or metabolic disorders such as cystic fibrosis, porphyria, and amyloidosis that obviously prevent satisfactory performance of duty or require frequent or prolonged treatment.

Upper extremities

The causes for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction are:
a. Limitation of motion. An individual will be considered unacceptable if the joint ranges of motion are less than the measurements listed below.
(1) Shoulder:
(a) Forward elevation to 90 degrees.
(b) Abduction to 90 degrees.
(2) Elbow:
(a) Flexion to 100 degrees.
(b) Extension to 15 degrees.
(3) Wrist: a total range of 60 degrees (extension plus flexion) or radial and ulnar deviation combined arc 30 degrees.
(4) Hand:
(a) Pronation to 45 degrees.
(b) Supination to 45 degrees.
(5) Fingers and thumb: inability to clench fist, pick up a pin, grasp an object, or touch tips of at least three fingers with thumb.
b. Hand and fingers.
(1) Absence of the distal phalanx of either thumb.
(2) Absence of distal and middle phalanx of an index, middle, or ring finger of either hand, irrespective of the absence or loss of little finger.
(3) Absence of more than the distal phalanx of any two of the following fingers: index, middle finger, or ring finger of either hand.
(4) Absence of hand or any portion thereof except for fingers as noted above.
(5) Polydactyly.
(6) Scars and deformities of the fingers or hand that are symptomatic or that impair normal function to such a degree as to interfere with the satisfactory performance of military duty.
(7) Intrinsic paralysis or weakness, including nerve palsy sufficient to produce physical findings in the hand such as muscle atrophy or weakness.
(8) Wrist, forearm, elbow, arm, or shoulder. Recovery from disease or injury with residual weakness or symptoms such as to preclude satisfactory performance of duty, or grip strength of less than 75 percent of predicted normal when injured hand is compared with the normal hand (non-dominant is 80 percent of dominant grip).

Lower extremities

The causes for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction are:
a. Limitation of motion. An individual will be considered unacceptable if the joint ranges of motion are less that the measurements listed below.
(1) Hip (due to disease, injury):
(a) Flexion to 90 degrees.
(b) No demonstrable flexion contracture.
(c) Extension to 10 degrees (beyond 0 degrees).
(d) Abduction to 45 degrees.
(e) Rotation of 60 degrees (internal and external combined).
(2) Knee (due to disease, injury):
(a) Full extension compared with contralateral.
(b) Flexion to 90 degrees.
(3) Ankle (due to disease, injury):
(a) Dorsiflexion to 10 degrees.
(b) Planter flexion to 30 degrees.
(4) Subtalar (due to disease or injury): eversion and inversion (total to 5 degrees).
b. Foot and ankle.
(1) Absences of one or more small toes if function of the foot is poor or running or jumping is prevented; absence of a foot or any portion thereof except for toes.
(2) Absence of great toe(s); loss of dorsal/plantar flexion if function of the foot is impaired.
(3) Deformities of the toes, either acquired or congenital, including polydactyly, that prevent wearing military footwear or impair walking, marching, running, or jumping. This includes hallux valgus.
(4) Clubfoot or Pes Cavus, if stiffness or deformity prevents foot function or wearing military footwear.
(5) Symptomatic pes planus, acquired or congenital or pronounced cases, with absence of subtalar motion.
(6) Ingrown toenails, if severe.
(7) Planter fascitis, persistent.
(8) Neuroma, confirmed condition and refractory to medical treatment or will impair function of the foot.
c. Leg, knee, thigh, and hip.
(1) Loose or foreign bodies within the knee joint.
(2) Physical findings of an unstable or internally deranged joint. History of uncorrected anterior or posterior cruciate ligament injury.
(3) Surgical correction of any knee ligaments if symptomatic or unstable.
(4) History of congenital dislocation of the hip, osteochondritis of the hip (Legg-Perthes disease), or slipped femoral epiphysis of the hip.
(5) Hip dislocation within 2 years before examination.
(6) Osteochondritis of the tibial tuberosity (Osgood-Schlatter disease), if symptomatic.
d. General.
(1) Deformities, disease or chronic pain of one or both lower extremities that have interfered with function to such a degree as to prevent the individual from following a physically active vocation in civilian life or that would interfere with walking, running, or weight bearing, or the satisfactory completion of prescribed training or military duty.
(2) Shortening of a lower extremity resulting in a noticeable limp or scoliosis.

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Miscellaneous Conditions of the Extremities

The causes for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction are an authenticated history of:
a. Arthritis.
(1) Active, subacute, or chronic arthritis.
(2) Chronic osteoarthritis or traumatic arthritis of isolated joints of more than a minimal degree, which has interfered with the following of a physically active vocation in civilian life or that prevents the satisfactory performance of military duty.
b. Chronic Retro Patellar Knee Pain Syndrome with or without confirmatory arthroscopic evaluation.
c. Dislocation if unreduced, or recurrent dislocations of any major joint such as shoulder, hip, elbow, or knee; or instability of any major joint such as shoulder, elbow, or hip.
d. Fractures.
(1) Malunion or non-union of any fracture, except ulnar styloid process.
(2) Orthopedic hardware, including plates, pins, rods, wires, or screws used for fixation and left in place; except that a pin, wire, or screw not subject to easy trauma is not disqualifying.
e. Injury of a bone or joint of more than a minor nature, with or without fracture or dislocation, that occurred within the preceding 6 weeks: upper extremity, lower extremity, ribs and clavicle.
f. Joint replacement.
g. Muscular paralysis, contracture, or atrophy, if progressive or of sufficient degree to interfere with military service and muscular dystrophies.
h. Osteochondritis dessicans.
i. Osteochondromatosis or Multiple Cartilaginous Exostoses.
j. Osteoporosis.
k. Osteomyelitis, active or recurrent.
l. Scars, extensive, deep, or adherent to the skin and soft tissues that interfere with muscular movements.
m. Implants, silastic or other devices implanted to correct orthopedic abnormalities.

Eyes

The causes for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction are:
a. Lids.
(1) Blepharitis, chronic, of more than mild degree.
(2) Blepharospasm.
(3) Dacryocystitis, acute or chronic.
(4) Deformity of the lids, complete or extensive, sufficient to interfere with vision or impair protection of the eye from exposure.
b. Conjunctiva.
(1) Conjunctivitis, chronic, including trachoma and allergic conjunctivitis.
(2) Pterygium, if encroaching on the cornea in excess of 3 millimeters (mm), interfering with vision, progressive, or recurring after two operative procedures.
(3) Xerophthalmia.
c. Cornea.
(1) Dystrophy, corneal, of any type, including keratoconus of any degree.
(2) Keratorefractive surgery, history of lamellar and/or penetrating keratoplasty. Laser surgery or appliance utilized to reconfigure the cornea is also disqualifying.
(3) Keratitis, acute or chronic, which includes recurrent corneal ulcers, erosions (abrasions), or herpetic ulcers.
(4) Vascularization or opacification of the cornea from any cause that is progressive or reduces vision below the standards prescribed below.
d. Uveitis or iridocyclitis.
(2) Chorioretinitis or inflammation of the retina, including histoplasmosis, toxoplasmosis, or vascular conditions of the eye to include Coats' disease, Eales' disease, and retinitis proliferans, unless a single episode of nown cause that has healed and does not interfere with vision.
(3) Congenital or degenerative changes of any part of the retina.
(4) Detachment of the retina, history of surgery for same, or peripheral retinal injury or degeneration that may cause retinal detachment.
f. Optic nerve.
(1) Optic neuritis, neuroretinitis, secondary optic atrophy, or documented history of attacks of retrobulbar neuritis.
(2) Optic atrophy, or cortical blindness.
(3) Papilledema.
g. Lens.
(1) Aphakia, lens implant, or dislocation of a lens.
(2) Opacities of the lens that interfere with vision or that are considered to be progressive.
h. Ocular mobility and motility.
(1) Diplopia, documented, constant or intermittent.
(2) Nystagmus.
(3) Strabismus, uncorrectable by lenses to less than 40 diopters or accompanied by diplopia.
(4) Strabismus, surgery for the correction of, within the preceding 6 months.
(5) For entrance into the USMA or ROTC programs, the following conditions are also disqualifying: esotropia of over 15 prism diopters; exotropia of over 10 prism diopters; hypertropia of over 5 prism diopters.
i. Miscellaneous defects and conditions.
(1) Abnormal visual fields due to disease of the eye or central nervous system, or trauma. Meridian-specific visual field minimums are as follows:
(a) Temporal, 85 degrees.
(b) Superior-temporal, 55 degrees.
(c) Superior, 45 degrees.
(d) Superior nasal, 55 degrees.
(e) Nasal, 60 degrees.
(f) Inferior nasal, 50 degrees.
(g) Inferior, 65 degrees.
(h) Inferior-temporal, 85 degrees.
(2) Absence of an eye, congenital or acquired.
(3) Asthenopia, severe.
(4) Exophthalmos, unilateral or bilateral, non-familial.
(5) Glaucoma, primary, or secondary, or pre-glaucoma as evidenced by intraocular pressure above 21 millimeters of mercury (mmHg), or the secondary changes in the optic disc or visual field loss associated with glaucoma.
(6) Loss of normal pupillary reflex reactions to accommodation or light, including Adie's syndrome.
(7) Night blindness.
(8) Retained intraocular foreign body.
(9) Growth or tumors of the eyelid, other than small basal cell tumors which can be cured by treatment, and small nonprogressive asymptomatic benign lesions.
(10) Any organic disease of the eye or adnexa not specified above, that threatens vision or visual function.

Vision

The causes for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction are:
a. Distant visual acuity of any degree that does not correct with spectacle lenses to at least one of the following:
(1) 20/40 in one eye and 20/70 in the other eye.
(2) 20/30 in one eye and 20/100 in the other eye.
(3) 20/20 in one eye and 20/400 in the other eye. However, for entrance into USMA or ROTC, distant visual acuity that does not correct to 20/20 in one eye and 20/40 in the other eye is disqualifying. For entrance into OCS, distant visual acuity that does not correct to 20/20 in one eye and 20/100 in the other eye is disqualifying.
b. Near visual acuity of any degree that does not correct to 20/40 in the better eye.
c. Refractive error (hyperopia, myopia, astigmatism), in any spherical equivalent of worse than -8.00 or +8.00 diopters; if ordinary spectacles cause discomfort by reason of ghost images or prismatic displacement; or if corrected by orthokeratology or keratorefractive surgery. However, for entrance into USMA or Army ROTC programs, the following conditions are disqualifying:
(1) Astigmatism, all types over 3 diopters.
(2) Hyperopia over 8.00 diopters spherical equivalent.
(3) Myopia over 8 diopters spherical equivalent.
(4) Refractive error corrected by orthokeratology or keratorefractive surgery.
d. Contact lenses. Complicated cases requiring contact lenses for adequate correction of vision, such as corneal scars and irregular astigmatism.
e. Color vision. Although there is no standard, color vision will be tested because adequate color vision is a prerequisite for entry into many military specialties. However, for entrance into the USMA or Army ROTC or OCS programs, the inability to distinguish and identify without confusion the color of an object, substance, material, or light that is uniformly colored a vivid red or vivid green is disqualifying.

Genitalia

The causes for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction are:
a. Female genitalia.
(1) Abnormal uterine bleeding, including menorrhagia, metrorrhagia, or polymenorrhea.
(2) Amenorrhea, unexplained.
(3) Dysmenorrhea, incapacitating to a degree recurrently necessitating absences of more than a few hours from routine activities.
(4) Endometriosis.
(5) Hermaphroditism.
(6) Menopausal syndrome, if manifested by more than mild constitutional or mental symptoms, or artificial menopause if less than 1 year's duration.
(7) Ovarian cysts, persistent, clinically significant.
(8) Pelvic inflammatory disease, acute or chronic.
(9) Pregnancy.
(10) Uterus, congenital absence of, or enlargement due to any cause.
(11) Vulvar or vaginal ulceration, including herpes genitalia and condyloma acuminatum, acute or chronic, not amenable to treatment. Such treatment must be given and demonstrated effective prior to accession.
(12) Abnormal Pap smear graded LGSIL or higher severity, or any smear in which the descriptive terms carcinoma-in-situ, invasive cancer, condyloma acuminatum, human papilloma virus, or dysplasia are used.
(13) Major abnormalities and defects of the genitalia such as a change of sex. A history thereof, or dysfunctional residuals from surgical correction of these conditions.
b. Male genitalia.
(1) Absence of both testicles, either congenital, or acquired, or unexplained absence of a testicle.
(2) Epispadias or Hypospadias, when accompanied by evidence of infection of the urinary tract, or if clothing is soiled when voiding.
(3) Undiagnosed enlargement or mass of testicle or epididymis.
(4) Undescended testicle(s).
(5) Orchitis, acute or chronic epididymitis.
(6) Penis, amputation of, if the resulting stump is insufficient to permit normal micturition.
(7) Penile infectious lesions, including herpes genitalis and condyloma acuminata, acute or chronic, not amenable to treatment. Such treatment must be given and demonstrated effective prior to accession.
(8) Prostatitis, acute or chronic.
(9) Hydrocele. Left varicocele, if painful, or any right varicocele.
c. Major abnormalities and defects of the genitalia, such as a change of sex, a history thereof, or dysfunctional residuals from surgical correction of these conditions.

Urinary System

The causes for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction are:
a. Cystitis.
b. Urethritis.
c. Enuresis or incontinence of urine beyond age 12.
d. Hematuria, pyuria, or other findings indicative of renal tract disease.
e. Urethral stricture or fistula.
f. Kidney.
(1) Absence of one kidney, congenital or acquired.
(2) Infections, acute or chronic.
(3) Polycystic kidney, confirmed history of.
(4) Horseshoe kidney.
(5) Hydronephrosis.
(6) Nephritis, acute or chronic.
g. Proteinuria under normal activity (at least 48 hours after strenuous exercise) greater than 200 milligrams (mg)/24 hours, or a protein to creatinine ratio greater than 0.2 in a random urine sample, unless nephrologic consultation determines the condition to be benign orthostatic proteinuria.
h. Renal calculus within the previous 12 months, recurrent calculus, nephrocalcinosis, or bilateral renal calculi at any time.

Head

The causes for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction are:
a. Injuries, including severe contusions and other wounds of the scalp and cerebral concussion, until a period of 3 months has elapsed.
b. Deformities of the skull, face, or jaw of a degree that would prevent the individual from wearing a protective mask or military headgear.
c. Defects, loss or congenital absence of the bony substance of the skull not successfully corrected by reconstructive materials, or leaving residual defect in excess of 1 square inch (6.45 centimeter (cm) 2 ) or the size of a 25 cent piece.

Neck

The causes for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction are:
a. Cervical ribs, if symptomatic or so obvious that they are found on routine physical examination. (Detection based primarily on x-rays is not considered to meet this criterion.)
b. Congenital cysts of branchial cleft origin or those developing from remnants of the thyroglossal duct, with or without fistulous tracts.
c. Contraction of the muscles of the neck, spastic or non-spastic, or cicatricial contracture of the neck to the extent that it interferes with wearing a uniform or military equipment or is so disfiguring as to impair military bearing.

Heart

The causes for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction are:
a. All valvular heart diseases, congenital or acquired, including those improved by surgery except mitral valve prolapse and bicuspid aortic valve. These latter two conditions are not reasons for rejection unless there is associated tachyarrhythmia, mitral regurgitation, aortic stenosis, insufficiency, or cardiomegaly.
b. Coronary heart disease.
c. Symptomatic arrhythmia (or electrocardiographic evidence of arrhythmia), history of.
(1) Supraventricular tachycardia, or any dysrhythmia originating from the atrium or sinoatrial node, such as atrial flutter, and atrial fibrillation, unless there has been no recurrence during the preceding 2 years while off all medications. Premature atrial or ventricular contractions are disqualifying when sufficiently symptomatic to require treatment or result in physical or psychological impairment.
(2) Ventricular arrhythmias, including ventricular fibrillation, tachycardia, and multi focal premature ventricular contractions. Occasional asymptomatic premature ventricular contractions are not disqualifying.
(3) Ventricular conduction disorders, left bundle branch block, Mobitz type II second degree atrioventricular (AV) block, and third degree AV block. Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome and Lown-Ganong-Levine-Syndrome associated with an arrhythmia are also disqualifying.
(4) Conduction disturbances such as first degree AV block, left anterior hemiblock, right bundle branch block, or Mobitz type I second degree AV block are disqualifying when symptomatic or associated with underlying cardiovascular disease.
d. Hypertrophy or dilatation of the heart.
e. Cardiomyopathy, including myocarditis, or history of congestive heart failure even though currently compensated.
f. Pericarditis.
g. Persistent tachycardia (resting pulse rate of 100 or greater).
h. Congenital anomalies of heart and great vessels, except for corrected patent ductus arteriosus.

Vascular system

The causes for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction are:
a. Abnormalities of the arteries and blood vessels, including aneurysms, even if repaired, atherosclerosis, or arteritis.
b. Hypertensive vascular disease, evidenced by the average of three consecutive diastolic blood pressure measurements greater than 90 mmHg or three consecutive systolic pressure measurements greater than 140 mmHg. High blood pressure requiring medication or a history of treatment including dietary restriction.
c. Pulmonary or systemic embolization.
d. Peripheral vascular disease, including Raynaud's phenomenon.
e. Vein diseases, recurrent thrombophlebitis, thrombophlebitis during the preceding year, or any evidence of venous incompetence, such as large or symptomatic varicose veins, edema, or skin ulceration.

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Height

The causes for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction are:
a. Men: Height below 60 inches or over 80 inches.
b. Women: Height below 58 inches or over 80 inches.

Weight

a. Applicants for initial appointment as commissioned officers (to include appointment as commissioned warrant officers) must meet the standards of AR 600-9 . Body fat composition is used as the final determinant in evaluating an applicant's acceptability when the weight exceeds the weight tables.
b. All other applicants must meet the standards of tables (see "Height and Weight" tables in this section). Body fat composition is used as the final determinant in evaluating an applicant's acceptability when the weight exceeds the weight tables.

Body build

The cause for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction is deficient muscular development that would interfere with the completion of required training.

Lungs, Chest Wall, Pleura, and Mediastinum

The causes for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction are:
a. Abnormal elevation of the diaphragm, either side.
b. Abscess of the lung.
c. Acute infectious processes of the lung, until cured.
d. Asthma, including reactive airway disease, exercise induced bronchospasm or asthmatic bronchitis, reliably diagnosed at any age. Reliable diagnostic criteria should consist of any of the following elements:
(1) Substantiated history of cough, wheeze, and/or dyspnea that persists or recurs over a prolonged period of time, generally more than 6 months.
(2) If the diagnosis of asthma is in doubt, a test for reversible airflow obstruction (greater than a 15 percent increase in forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEVI) following administration of an inhaled bronchodilator) or airway hyperactivity (exaggerated decrease in airflow induced by standard bronchoprovocation challenge such as methacholine inhalation or a demonstration of exercise-induced bronchospasm) must be performed.
e. Bronchitis, chronic, symptoms over 3 months occurring at least twice a year.
f. Bronchiectasis.
g. Bronchopleural fistula.
h. Bullous or generalized pulmonary emphysema.
i. Chronic mycotic diseases of the lung including coccidioidomycosis.
j. Chest wall malformation or fracture that interferes with vigorous physical exertion.
k. Empyema, including residual pleural effusion or unhealed sinuses of chest wall.
l. Extensive pulmonary fibrosis.
m. Foreign body in lung, trachea, or bronchus.
n. Lobectomy, with residual pulmonary disease or removal of more than one lobe.
o. Pleurisy with effusion, within the previous 2 years if known or unknown origin.
p. Pneumothorax during the year preceding examination if due to a simple trauma or surgery; during the 3 years preceding examination from spontaneous origin. Recurrent spontaneous pneumothorax after surgical correction or pleural sclerosis.
q. Sarcoidosis.
r. Silicone breast implants, encapsulated if less than 9 months since surgery or with symptomatic complications.
s. Tuberculous lesions.

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Mouth

The causes for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction are:
a. Cleft lip or palate defects, unless satisfactorily repaired by surgery.
b. Leukoplakia.

Nose, Sinuses, and Larynx

The causes for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction are:
a. Allergic manifestations.
(1) Allergic or vasomotor rhinitis, if moderate or severe and not controlled by oral medications, desensitization, or topical corticosteroid medication.
(2) Atrophic rhinitis.
(3) Vocal cord paralysis, or symptomatic disease of the larynx.
b. Anosmia or parosmia.
c. Epistaxis, recurrent.
d. Nasal polyps, unless surgery was performed at least 1 year before examination.
e. Perforation of nasal septum, if symptomatic or progressive.
f. Sinusitis, acute.
g. Sinusitis, chronic, when evidenced by chronic purulent nasal discharge, hyperplastic changes of the nasal tissue, symptoms requiring frequent medical attention, or x-ray findings.
h. Larynx ulceration, polyps, granulated tissue, or chronic laryngitis.
i. Tracheostomy or tracheal fistula.
j. Deformities or conditions of the mouth, tongue, palate throat, pharynx, larynx, and nose that interfere with chewing, swallowing, speech, or breathing.
k. Pharyngitis and nasopharyngitis, chronic.

Neurological Disorders

The causes for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction are:
a. Cerebrovascular conditions, any history of subarachnoid or intracerebral hemorrhage, vascular insufficiency, aneurysm, or arteriovenous malformation.
b. Congenital malformations, if associated with neurological manifestations or if known to be progressive; meningocele, even if uncomplicated.
c. Degenerative and hereditodegenerative disorders affecting the cerebrum, basal ganglia, cerebellum, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves, or muscles.
d. Recurrent headaches of all types if they are of sufficient severity or frequency to interfere with normal function within 3 years.
e. Head injury.
(1) Applicants with a history of head injury with -
(a) Late post-traumatic epilepsy (occurring more than l week after injury).
(b) Permanent motor or sensory deficits.
(c) Impairment of intellectual function.
(d) Alteration of personality.
(e) Central nervous system shunt.
(2) Applicants with a history of severe head injury are unfit for a period of at least 5 years, after which they may be considered fit if complete neurological and neurophysical evaluation shows no residual dysfunction or complications. Applicants with a history of severe penetrating head injury are unfit for a period of at least 10 years after the injury. After 10 years they may be considered fit if complete neurological and neuropsychological evaluation shows no residuals dysfunction or complications. Severe head injuries are defined by one or more of the following:
(a) Unconsciousness or amnesia, alone or in combination, of 24 hours duration or longer.
(b) Depressed skull fracture.
(c) Laceration or contusion of dura or brain.
(d) Epidural, subdural, subarachnoid, or intracerebral hematoma.
(e) Associated abscess or meningitis.
(f) Cerebrospinal fluid rhinorrhea or otorrhea persisting more than 7 days.
(g) Focal neurologic signs.
(h) Radiographic evidence of retained metallic or bony fragments.
(i) Leptomeningeal cysts or arteriovenous fistula.
(j) Early post-traumatic seizure(s) occurring within 1 week of injury but more than 30 minutes after injury.
(3) Applicants with a history of moderate head injury are unfit for a period of at least 2 years after injury, after which they may be considered fit if complete neurological evaluation shows no residual dysfunction or complications. Moderate head injuries are defined by unconsciousness or amnesia, alone or in combination of 1 to 24 hours duration or linear skull fracture.
(4) Applicants with a history of mild head injury, as defined by a period of unconsciousness or amnesia, alone or in combination, of 1 hour or less, are unfit for at least 1 month after injury; after which they may be acceptable if neurological evaluation shows no residual dysfunction or complications.
(5) Persistent post-traumatic sequelae, as manifested by headache, vomiting, disorientation, spatial disequilibrium, personality changes, impaired memory, poor mental concentration, shortened attention span, dizziness, altered sleep patterns, or any findings consistent with organic brain syndrome are disqualifying until full recovery has been confirmed by complete neurological and neuropsychological evaluation.
f. Infectious diseases.
(1) Meningitis, encephalitis, or poliomyelitis within 1 year before examination, or if there are residual neurological defects.
(2) Neurosyphilis of any form, general paresis, tabes dorsalis meningovascular syphilis.
g. Narcolepsy, sleep apnea syndrome.
h. Paralysis, weakness, lack of coordination, pain, sensory disturbance.
i. Epilepsy, beyond the age of 5 unless the applicant has been free of seizures for a period of 5 years while taking no medication for seizure control, and has a normal electroencephalogram (EEG). All such applicants will have a current neurology consultation with current EEG results. EEG may be requested by the reviewing authority.
j. Chronic disorders such as myasthenia gravis and multiple sclerosis.
k. Central nervous system shunts of all kinds.

Disorders with Psychotic Features

The causes for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction are disorders with psychotic features.

Neurotic, Anxiety, Mood, Somatoform, Dissociative, or Factitious Disorders

The causes for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction are a history of such disorders resulting in any or all of the below:
a. Admission to a hospital or residential facility.
b. Care by a physician or other mental health professional for more than 6 months.
c. Symptoms or behavior of a repeated nature that impaired social, school, or work efficiency.

Personality, Conduct, and Behavior Disorders

The causes for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction are:
a. Personality, conduct, or behavior disorders as evidenced by frequent encounters with law enforcement agencies, antisocial attitudes or behavior, which, while not sufficient cause for administrative rejection, are tangible evidence of impaired capacity to adapt to military service.
b. Personality, conduct, or behavior disorders where it is evident by history, interview, or psychological testing that the degree of immaturity, instability, personality inadequacy, impulsiveness, or dependency will seriously interfere with adjustment in the Army as demonstrated by repeated inability to maintain reasonable adjustment in school, with employers and fellow workers, and with other social groups.
c. Other behavior disorders including but not limited to conditions such as authenticated evidence of functional enuresis or encopresis, sleepwalking, or eating disorders that are habitual or persistent occurring beyond age 12, or stammering of such a degree that the individual is normally unable to express himself or herself clearly or to repeat commands.
d. Specific academic skills defects, chronic history of academic skills or perceptual defects, secondary to organic or functional mental disorders that interfere with work or school after age 12. Current use of medication to improve or maintain academic skills.
e. Suicide, history of attempted or suicidal behavior.

Psychosexual Conditions

The causes for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction are transsexualism, exhibitionism, transvestitism, voyeurism, and other paraphilias.

Skin and Cellular Tissues

The causes for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction are:
a. Acne, severe, or when extensive involvement of the neck, shoulders, chest, or back would be aggravated by or interfere with the wearing of military equipment, and would not be amenable to treatment. Patients under treatment with isotretinoin (Accutane) are medically unacceptable until 8 weeks after completion of course of therapy.
b. Atopic dermatitis or eczema, with active or residual lesions in characteristic areas (face, neck, antecubital, and or/popliteal fossae, occasionally wrists and hands), or documented history thereof after the age of 8.
c. Contact dermatitis, especially involving rubber or other materials used in any type of required protective equipment.
d. Cysts.
(1) Cysts, other than pilonidal, of such a size or location as to interfere with the normal wearing of military equipment.
(2) Pilonidal cysts, if evidenced by the presence of a tumor mass or a discharging sinus. History of pilonidal cystectomy within 6 months before examination is disqualifying.
e. Dermatitis factitia.
f. Bullous dermatoses, such as Dermatitis Herpetiformis, pemphigus, and epidermolysis bullosa.
g. Chronic Lymphedema.
h. Fungus infections, systemic or superficial types, if extensive and not amenable to treatment.
i. Furunculosis, extensive recurrent, or chronic.
j. Hyperhidrosis of hands or feet, chronic or severe.
k. Ichthyosis, or other congenital or acquired anomalies of the skin such as nevi or vascular tumors that interfere with function or are exposed to constant irritation.
l. Keloid formation, if the tendency is marked or interferes with the wearing of military equipment.
m. Leprosy, any type.
n. Lichen planus.
o. Neurofibromatosis (von Recklinghausen's disease).
p. Photosensitivity, any primary sun-sensitive condition, such as polymorphous light eruption or solar urticaria; any dermatosis aggravated by sunlight such as lupus erythematosus.
q. Psoriasis, unless mild by degree, not involving nail pitting, and not interfering with wearing military equipment or clothing.
r. Radiodermatitis.
s. Scars that are so extensive, deep, or adherent that they may interfere with the wearing of military clothing or equipment, exhibit a tendency to ulcerate, or interfere with function. Includes scars at skin graft donor or recipient sites if the area is susceptible to trauma.
t. Scleroderma.
u. Tattoos that will significantly limit effective performance of military service or that are otherwise prohibited under AR 670-1 .
v. Urticaria, chronic.
w. Warts, plantar, symptomatic.
x. Xanthoma, if disabling or accompanied by hyperlipemia.
y. Any other chronic skin disorder of a degree or nature, such as Dysplastic Nevi Syndrome, which requires frequent outpatient treatment or hospitalization, or interferes with the satisfactory performance of duty.

Spine and Sacroiliac Joints

The causes for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction are:
a. Arthritis.
b. Complaint of a disease or injury of the spine or sacroiliac joints with or without objective signs that has prevented the individual from successfully following a physically active vocation in civilian life or that is associated with pain referred to the lower extremities, muscular spasm, postural deformities, or limitation of motion.
c. Deviation or curvature of spine from normal alignment, structure, or function if -
(1) It prevents the individual from following a physically active vocation in civilian life.
(2) It interferes with wearing a uniform or military equipment.
(3) It is symptomatic and associated with positive physical finding(s) and demonstrable by x-ray.
(4) There is lumbar scoliosis greater than 20 degrees, thoracic scoliosis greater than 30 degrees, and kyphosis or lordosis greater than 55 degrees when measured by the Cobb method.
d. Fusion, congenital, involving more than two vertebrae. Any surgical fusion is disqualifying.
e. Healed fractures or dislocations of the vertebrae. A compression fracture, involving less than 25 percent of a single vertebra is not disqualifying if the injury occurred more than 1 year before examination and the applicant is asymptomatic. A history of fractures of the transverse or spinous processes is not disqualifying if the applicant is asymptomatic.
f. Juvenile epiphysitis with any degree of residual change indicated by x-ray or kyphosis.
g. Ruptured nucleus pulposus, herniation of intervertebral disk or history of operation for this condition.
h. Spina bifida when symptomatic or if there is more than one vertebra involved, dimpling of the overlying skin, or a history of surgical repair.
i. Spondylolysis and spondylolisthesis.
j. Weak or painful back requiring external support such as a corset or brace; recurrent sprains or strains requiring limitation of physical activity or frequent treatment.

Systemic Diseases

The causes for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction are:
a. Amyloidosis.
b. Ankylosing spondylitis.
c. Eosinophilic granuloma when occurring as a single localized bony lesion and not associated with soft tissue or other involvement should not be a cause for rejection once healing has occurred. All other forms of the Histiocytosis X spectrum should be rejected.
d. Lupus erythematosus and mixed connective tissue disease.
e. Polymyositis/dermatomyositis complex.
f. Progressive Systemic Sclerosis, including CRST (calcinosis, Raynaud's phenomenon, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasis) variant. A single plaque of localized scleroderma (morphea) that has been stable for at least 2 years is not disqualifying.
g. Reiter's Disease.
h. Rheumatoid arthritis.
i. Rhabdomyolysis.
j. Sarcoidosis, unless there is substantiated evidence of a complete spontaneous remission of at least 2 years duration.
k. Sjogren's Syndrome.
l. Tuberculosis.
(1) Active tuberculosis in any form or location, or history of active tuberculosis within the previous 2 years.
(2) One or more reactivations.
(3) Residual physical or mental defects from past tuberculosis that would preclude the satisfactory performance of duty.
(4) Individuals with a past history of active tuberculosis MORE than 2 years prior to enlistment, induction and appointment are QUALIFIED IF they have received a complete course of standard chemotherapy for tuberculosis. In addition, individuals with a tuberculin reaction 10 mm or greater and without evidence of residual disease are qualified once they have been treated with chemoprophylaxis.
(5) Vasculitis such as Bechet's, Wegener's granulomatosis, polyarteritis nodosa.

General and Miscellaneous Conditions and Defects

The causes for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction are:
a. Allergic manifestations. A reliable history of anaphylaxis to stinging insects. Reliable history of a moderate to severe reaction to common foods, spices, or food additives.
b. Any acute pathological condition, including acute communicable diseases, until recovery has occurred without sequelae.
c. Chronic metallic poisoning with lead, arsenic, or silver, or beryllium or manganese.
d. Cold injury, residuals of, such as: frostbite, chilblain, immersion foot, trench foot, deep-seated ache, paresthesia, hyperhidrosis, easily traumatized skin, cyanosis, amputation of any digit, or ankylosis.
e. Cold urticaria and angioedema, hereditary angioedema.
f. Filariasis, trypanosomiasis, schistosomiasis, uncinariasis, or other parasitic conditions, if symptomatic or carrier states.
g. Heat pyrexia, heatstroke, or sunstroke. Documented evidence of a predisposition (including disorders of sweat mechanism and a previous serious episode), recurrent episodes requiring medical attention, or residual injury (especially cardiac, cerebral, hepatic, and renal); malignant hyperthermia.
h. Industrial solvent and other chemical intoxication.
i. Motion sickness. An authenticated history of frequent incapacitating motion sickness after the 12th birthday.
j. Mycotic infection of internal organs.
k. Organ transplant recipient.
l. Presence of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV-I) or antibody. Presence is confirmed by repeatedly reactive enzyme-linked immunoassay serological test and positive immunoelectrophoresis (Western Blot) test, or other DOD-approved confirmatory test.
m. Reactive tests for syphilis such as the rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test or venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL) followed by a reactive, confirmatory Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption (FTA-ABS) test unless there is a documented history of adequately treated syphilis. In the absence of clinical findings, the presence of reactive RPR or VDRL followed by a negative FTA-ABS test is not disqualifying if a cause for the false positive reaction can be identified and is not otherwise disqualifying.
n. Residual of tropical fevers, such as malaria and various parasitic or protozoal infestations that prevent the satisfactory performance of military duty.
o. Rheumatic fever during the previous 2 years, or any history of recurrent attacks; Sydenham's chorea at any age.
p. Sleep apnea.

Tumors and Malignant Diseases

The causes for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction are:
a. Benign tumors (M8000) that interfere with function, prevent wearing the uniform or protective equipment, would require frequent specialized attention, or have a high malignant potential.
b. Malignant tumors (V10), exception for basal cell carcinoma, removed with no residual. In addition, the following cases should be qualified if on careful review they meet the following criteria: individuals who have a history of childhood cancer who have not received any surgical or medical cancer therapy for 5 years and are free of cancer; individuals with a history of Wilm's tumor and germ cell tumors of the testis treated surgically and/or with chemotherapy after a 2-year disease-free interval off all treatment; individuals with a history of Hodgkin's disease treated with radiation therapy and/or chemotherapy and disease free off treatment for 5 years; individuals with a history of large cell lymphoma after a 2-year disease-free interval off all therapy.

Miscellaneous

Any condition that in the opinion of the examining medical officer will significantly interfere with the successful performance of military duty or training may be a cause for rejection for appointment, enlistment, and induction.

List Acquired From: Military.com